Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How is it, in the USA, a country with 334 million people, the choice of President comes down to two aged men, one of whom is a liar as well as a criminal, one who appears to be on his way to dementia. Surely a democratic country can put up better?

You'll usually find your answer there.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Do women like men who have slept with many women?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What is the most inappropriate experience you have had with a friend's daughter?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: